If a player in the frontcourt passes the ball to a teammate who tips the ball into the backcourt after it was tipped by an opposing player, has a violation occured. I think I recall(high school) an individual telling me the teammate would have had to gain full control of the ball and lose it for a violation to occur. Could you help?!
Backcourt
- Thread starter Bigkappa
- Start date
That's a tough one. I will go out on a limb and say no violation has occurred since ball was tipped by the defense.
Yes it is a violation if the offense is the last one to touch the ball in his frontcourt. Touching is all that was needed.
My point is
in the OP nothing was ever said about any player touching the ball in the backcourt. It is assumed he meant AFTER it tipped off the offensive player's hand and went into back court, that he or a teammate was the first to touch. Merely causing it to go backcourt is not actually a violation on its own. Just clarifying...somebody's gotta pick up the slack for FBRef.
in the OP nothing was ever said about any player touching the ball in the backcourt. It is assumed he meant AFTER it tipped off the offensive player's hand and went into back court, that he or a teammate was the first to touch. Merely causing it to go backcourt is not actually a violation on its own. Just clarifying...somebody's gotta pick up the slack for FBRef.
